Again, does anyone other than me find it strange that 30% of the cases are supposedly at least partially vaccinated?? That doesn't make sense to me..
Most studies here in the UK seem to indicate around 70% effectiveness against symptomatic disease for one dose of Astra Zeneca and maybe 80% for Pfizer. So seems about right that 30% of infections are partially vaccinated. Especially since people in the BVI were mostly pretty late getting their first dose and are now exposed to more infectious variants.
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